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May 11, 2015 · While 1/i = i−1 1 / i = i 1 is true (pretty much by definition), if we have a value c c such that c∗i = 1 c ∗ i = 1 then c= i−1 c = i 1. This is because we know that inverses in the. Possible Duplicate: Prove 0! = 1 0! = 1 from first principles Why does 0! = 1 0! = 1? All I know of factorial is that x! x! is equal to the product of all the numbers that come before it. The product.
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